PRMIA Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate - 8011 Exam Practice Test

In respect of operational risk capital calculations, the Basel II accord recommends a confidence level and time horizon of:

As part of designing a reverse stress test, at what point should a bank's business plan be considered unviable (ie the point where it can be considered to have failed)?

If P be the transition matrix for 1 year, how can we find the transition matrix for 4 months?

Which of the following losses can be attributed to credit risk:
I. Losses in a bond's value from a credit downgrade
II. Losses in a bond's value from an increase in bond yields
III. Losses arising from a bond issuer's default
IV. Losses from an increase in corporate bond spreads

Which of the following best describes Altman's Z-score

Which of the following statements are true:
I. Shocks to risk factors should be relative rather than absolute if we wish to avoid a change in thesign of the risk factor.
II. Interest rate shocks are generally modeled as absolute shocks.
III. Shocks to volatility are generally modeled as absolute shocks.
IV. Shocks to market spreads are generally modeled as relative shocks.

For a corporate bond, which of the following statements is true:
I. The credit spread is equal to the default rate times the recovery rate II. The spread widens when the ratings of the corporate experience an upgrade III. Both recovery rates and probabilities of default are related to the business cycle and move in opposite directions to each other IV. Corporate bond spreads are affected by both the risk of default and the liquidity of the particular issue

Which of the following statements are true:
I. Credit risk and counterparty risk are synonymous
II. Counterparty risk is the contingent risk from a counterparty's default in derivative transactions III. Counterparty risk is the risk of a loan default or the risk from moneys lent directly IV. The exposure at default is difficult to estimate for credit risk as it depends upon market movements

Which of the following credit risk models focuses on default alone and ignores credit migration when assessing credit risk?

If the full notional value of a debt portfolio is $100m, its expected value in a year is $85m, and the worst value of the portfolio in one year's time at 99% confidence level is $60m, then what is the credit VaR?

Which of the following cannot be used to address the issue of heavy tails when modeling market returns

A portfolio has two loans, A and B, each worth $1m. The probability of default of loan A is 10% and that of loan B is 15%. The probability of both loans defaulting together is 1%. Calculate the expected loss on the portfolio.

When pricing credit risk for an exposure, which of the following is a better measure than the others: